Right! I've always thought of this as a matter of meter, style and other contextual aspects, as well as interpretation, rather than notation, and my impression is that this aspect of beaming (including beaming over barlines) is somewhat controversial, but I absolutely see your point that beams can be used to indicate the absence of accentuation.John Ruggero wrote:Knut wrote:
No, it isn't. Most legato passages still express the beat through at least slight emphasis. It is only special passages that don't. One way that composers have shown such special passages is through beaming. Another example of this would be beaming over the bar line to cancel a downbeat....isn't it automatically implied that a slurred passage should have no internal articulation (sic, accentuation?) when there is no articulation present?
In that case, however, it seems to me that Beethoven's original beaming does in fact imply a certain internal accentuation, even if the context does not?